THANK you for the article by Craig Meighan “Overhaul UK Energy System to save £18bn” (Nov 17) which tackles a topic which has puzzled me somewhat. It also raises a number of questions.

1. Is it a fact that the unit price of electricity, whatever the source, is coupled to the price of gas? Is it a UK policy and not an international one?

2. Who introduced that policy and what was the motivation for doing so?

3. If £18 billion is the UK cost saving of a change of policy, what would be the cost saving in an independent Scotland?

4. If the existing policy was indeed changed and the cost of energy to Scots/UK consumers was related to the production cost, would that not give electricity production and distribution companies a powerful incentive to switch to cheaper renewables more quickly than they are currently doing?

Hugh Noble